Thank you for explaining. Alright, then, obviously what I said
wasn't a formula properly speaking at all. I wasn't trying to make a formula, you merely called it one, so I agreed to call it that, and now you tell me it wasn't one to begin with. So it was only a manner of speaking, my attempt at communicating. So why we are giving it such attention
as a failed formula rather than a manner of speaking is rather confusing.
I frankly have no idea how I would make one with the explanation you provide. I will try, but please don't make an issue out of it. If it is still no good, then please tell me. However, do not press the point. I am only trying to make a valid formula as you desire one. I still don't know why only that formula and principle that you provided is valid in this instance, but I shall assume you are right and attempt to use it.
If God is truth which we shall call T, then all logical truth, L, is equal to T.
Perhaps that works and perhaps it doesn't. I shall be genuinely interested in your reply. However, you are trying to teach me this matter of logical formulas and, unfortunately, I simply need a longer and very different lesson. Further, while I am interested in reading more on logic and started by getting a book on Socratic philosophy, rather than speeding this discussion to its conclusion, this discussion of formulas has hindered it a great deal. How could it not, when you are trying to have me use a method of discussion I have already made clear I am unused to?
So I insist, rather than slowing this discussion unnecessarily, we return to the casually normal mode of debate and forget the "formal" formulas as you call them.
And of course my formula may be wrong, if it is a formula at all, or the manner of speaking, rather, may be poor. But what do you mean I should concede I may be wrong? I already admitted maybe the formula as you call it is likely wrong, more than once. What's your point? I already pointed out that the "formula" wasn't the main point of that post but just an aside. If you remove it, the argument still makes sense.
Now then. I realize you are not arguing that Jesus' nature is outside objective reality. However,you are arguing that God is above definition 1 and 2. That Jesus could not be explained by logic or logical formulas and that he is above the methods of reasoning we call logic. We agree He is above the third. On reflection, perhaps we agree on the second as well, since we cannot understand all about God through our reason. However, the reality is, though we cannot find explanations through our reason, reason and logic still applies in those vagaries if only we could find out how, which we can't because God is infinite and we have finite minds and understanding. That seems to be where we differ, definitions one and two.
You think that because we have been given all the knowledge of God's nature we shall have on earth we have all there is? Surely not. So you mean that we have all
logical knowledge of God there is? How does that follow?
Eleventh Doctor wrote:This is the logical fallacy of appeal to the masses. This is not a refutation
You said we know God is above logic through divine revelation, and the only proof you provided that the revelation is legitimate is that both sides of the church once believed this idea. Well, that's essentially an appeal to the masses, is it not?